1. The patient receives several chemotherapeutic agents as treatments for cancer. The patient asks why so many drugs are needed. What is the best response to the patient?
a. “Using multiple drugs is more cost effective in treating cancer.”
b. “Using multiple drugs will help kill more of the cancer.”
c. “Using multiple drugs means a shorter treatment time.”
d. “Using multiple drugs decreases the incidence of side effects.”
2. A patient has been prescribed a potassium-sparing diuretic. The nurse expects to see which medication on the medication administration record (MAR)?
3. A nursing student is learning about the effects of hyponatremia on hospitalized patients. Which of the following would the student identify as signs and symptoms of hyponatremia? (Select all that apply).
a. Abdominal cramping
4. Administration of a hypertonic intravenous fluid would result in which of the following?
a. Intravascular dehydration
b. Cellular swelling
c. Dependent edema
d. Cellular shrinkage
5. Which population should receive the shingles vaccine?
a. Adults over age 60
b. Pregnant women
c. College students
d. Children at 15 months
6. The nurse demonstrates understanding of the appropriate use of immunosuppressant therapy by anticipating its use in the client with which disorder?
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
7. An adult patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) and diagnosed with a thrombotic stroke. The team plans to administer alteplase. The patient makes the following comments. Which information is critical for the healthcare team to relay to the healthcare provider?
a. “I thought this was just my asthma acting up.”
b. “I had a blood clot in my leg last year after my baby was born.”
c. “I wonder if this was happening when I fell and hit my head last week.”
d. “I can’t believe this is happening. My baby is only a year old.”
8. A patient with severe and persistent diarrhea over several days has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. What acid-base imbalance does the nurse suspect the client is suffering from?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis
9. A common theme among all the antineoplastic agents is:
a. their ability to kill cancer cells.
b. their drug interactions.
c. their mechanism of action.
d. their adverse effects.
10. The nurse demonstrates understanding of the appropriate use of immunostimulant therapy by anticipating its use in the client with which disorder?
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
11. Which of the following is the treatment for a patient experiencing acidosis?
a. Magnesium sulfate
b. Ammonium chloride
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Sodium chloride with potassium chloride
12. What is the expected outcome for the client receiving filgrastim?
a. Reduction in tumor size
b. Reduction in paresthesia
c. Increased platelet count
d. Increased white blood cell count
13. Assessment for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a priority for which patient?
a. A patient with hypertension
b. A patient with pneumonia
c. A patient recovering from a knee replacement
d. A patient with a gastric ulcer
14. A patient in the neurologic intensive care unit is being treated for cerebral edema. Which class of diuretic is used to reduce intracranial pressure?
15. The client has been receiving furosemide for chronic kidney disease. The nurse understands that monitoring which laboratory value is MOST important before administering the medication?
16. Which statement regarding the adverse effects of antineoplastic drugs is the most accurate?
a. They produce the same amount of adverse effects as any other medication.
b. They commonly produce serious adverse effects.
c. They produce the most, but a small range of, adverse effects.
d. They produce the least amount of serious adverse effects of any medication.
17. A patient on dialysis is receiving epoetin alfa. Which statement best describes the action of this drug to the patient?
a. “Epogen helps to increase the concentration of the oxygen carrier in your blood.”
b. “Epogen will change the shape of your red blood cells to increase their flexibility.”
c. “Epogen changes the molecular structure of your hemoglobin, making it carry more oxygen.”
d. “Epogen makes your red blood cells bigger around.”
18. The nurse is administering an intravenous dose of furosemide to a client with symptomatic heart failure. What parameter will the nurse closely monitor after administration of this medication?
a. Oxygen saturation
b. Deep tendon reflexes
c. Respiratory rate
d. Blood pressure
19. Which of the following solutions would be categorized as colloids? (Select all that apply).
c. Lactated Ringer’s
d. 0.9% NaCl
20. A patient has been admitted with anemia due to a chronic gastrointestinal bleed. The nurse prepares to administer what blood product?
c. Packed red blood cells
d. Fresh frozen plasma
Nursing Review Questions Unit 3
21. A patient in the medical-surgical unit is experiencing status epilepticus. The nurse prepares to give which drug of choice for the treatment of this condition?
d. Valproic Acid
22. The nurse is most worried about which adverse effect related to the use of barbiturates?
d. Respiratory depression
23. When educating a group of students about pharmacotherapy for insomnia, the healthcare provider would include which statement regarding the mechanism of action for zolpidem? Zolpidem enhances the action of:
24. The nurse reads in the patient’s medication history that the patient is taking buspirone. The nurse interprets that the patient may have which disorder?
a. Seizure disorder
c. Anxiety disorder
25. The healthcare provider is educating a client with painful spasticity related to cerebral palsy about treatment options. The healthcare provider would identify which medication as delivered through an intrathecal pump?
26. The parents of a child diagnosed with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) are worried about starting their child on a stimulant medication. The healthcare provider educates the parents about which nonstimulant option in the treatment of ADHD?
27. A male patient who is prescribed sildenafil asks how the medication works. What is the best response?
a. “It causes an erection to occur.”
b. “It restricts blood flow to the penis
c. “It stimulates the release of phosphodiesterase-5, an enzyme that causes an erection.”
d. “It inhibits the release of an enzyme that relaxes smooth muscle in the penis to allow blood flow leading to an erection.”
28. An educator is teaching a group of students about pharmacotherapy for depression. Which medication class would the educator identify as first-line treatment for depression?
a. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
b. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
c. Mood Stabilizers
d. Tricyclic Antidepressants
29. What is the goal of pharmacotherapy for Parkinson’s disease?
a. Increase the ability to perform activities of daily living.
b. Cure the condition.
c. Improve cognitive functioning and long-term memory.
d. Decrease the progressive demyelination of nerve fibers.
30. Which laboratory value is monitored to determine the progression of thyroid disease in a patient?
31. A patient is experiencing severe musculoskeletal pain. Corticosteroid therapy would be indicated for which musculoskeletal disorders?
Select all that apply.
c. Myasthenia gravis
32. There is a sign limiting visitors on the door of a hospitalized patient receiving high-dose intravenous corticosteroids. When the family inquires why visitors are limited, the best response would be:
a. “Visitors are not required to wash their hands when they enter the room.”
b. “The germs of visitors put the patient at risk for infection.”
c. “The patient is very sick, and needs rest.”
d. “The germs of the patient put all visitors at risk for infection.”
33. The healthcare provider should educate a client newly diagnosed with Parkinson’s Disease about which common adverse effect associated with levodopa/carbidopa?
b. Suicidal ideation
34. Match the correct medication to the correct indication for use.
Answer choices: Magnesium Sulfate, Dinoprostone, Oxytocin, Methylergonovine
- Stimulates uterine contractions
- Decreases uterine contractions
- Promotes cervical ripening
- Treats emergency postpartum uterine hemorrhage
35. An older male patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy for prostate cancer and is confused because “it is a medication for women.” What is the best explanation for the use of estrogen to the patient?
a. “Estrogen helps with the hot flashes that patients with prostate cancer usually have.”
b. “Estrogen blocks the hormones that allow the prostate cancer to grow.”
c. “Estrogen helps to lift the mood of patients who have cancer.”
d. “Estrogen helps to restore sexual drive in men with prostate cancer.”
36. A patient has been taking haloperidol for 3 months for a psychotic disorder, and the healthcare provider is concerned about the development of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The healthcare provider will monitor the patient closely for which effects?
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Paranoia and hallucinations
c. Tremor and pacing
d. Dry mouth and constipation
37. A school-aged client recently diagnosed with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin for seizure control. The healthcare provider knows to look for what adverse affect related to this medication?
a. Weight gain
d. Gingival hyperplasia
38. A patient has benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. Which medication could the client safely receive that might treat both conditions?
39. A 22-year-old patient has been taking lithium for 1 year. The patient’s most recent lithium level is 1.5 mEq/L. Which statement about the laboratory result is correct?
a. Lithium is not monitored via blood level.
b. The lithium level is therapeutic.
c. The lithium level is too low.
d. The lithium level is too high.
40. The nurse suspects that a patient admitted to the emergency department has overdosed on a benzodiazepine. What medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
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